(January 22, 2019 at 1:00 pm)Jörmungandr Wrote:(January 22, 2019 at 12:41 pm)Acrobat Wrote: That depends on what difference you're talking about, some of those differences might be a product of delusions, or falsehoods. Like the Holocaust being built on lies about the Jews.
At the same time, if we were to compile together all the different texts from human civilizations, that outlines moral guidelines and principles, you'd find that there's a great deal of similarity in these outlooks more so than differences.
I'm not interested in the similarities, only the differences. So, then, are you suggesting that any difference between the morals in the bible regarding slavery, as one example, are due to delusion or falsehoods? I presume you would say that the bible doesn't contain falsehoods, so the only conclusion that one could draw from that explanation, failing an alternative explanation, is that people are deluded about the morality of slavery, currently, and the view that slavery is wrong is a falsehood. Is this what you believe, or are there other explanations for differences between past morals, biblical or not, and present ones? Second, what faculty of human beings allows for the correction of delusional beliefs or falsehoods?
And I'd still like a response to my second concern previously. If left unanswered, I'll have to conclude that your position on the matter is vapid and unsupported.
No, I'm not a fundie evangelical, and so yes its possible that the bible contains certain things that are false.
With that being said I don't see that OT practice of slavery being on based on false beliefs, but rather a product of the economic necessities of their tribes, unlike American Slavery being built on false beliefs regarding African Americans as not human, etc...
The OT writers didn't frame slavery in moral terms at all, they did't defend slavery or any moral grounds at all. If the survival of their tribes/communities depended on taking slaves from other tribe, that those are the hard practices they adopted.