RE: Morality
January 22, 2019 at 1:39 pm
(This post was last modified: January 22, 2019 at 1:43 pm by Angrboda.)
(January 22, 2019 at 1:23 pm)Acrobat Wrote:(January 22, 2019 at 1:00 pm)Jörmungandr Wrote: I'm not interested in the similarities, only the differences. So, then, are you suggesting that any difference between the morals in the bible regarding slavery, as one example, are due to delusion or falsehoods? I presume you would say that the bible doesn't contain falsehoods, so the only conclusion that one could draw from that explanation, failing an alternative explanation, is that people are deluded about the morality of slavery, currently, and the view that slavery is wrong is a falsehood. Is this what you believe, or are there other explanations for differences between past morals, biblical or not, and present ones? Second, what faculty of human beings allows for the correction of delusional beliefs or falsehoods?
And I'd still like a response to my second concern previously. If left unanswered, I'll have to conclude that your position on the matter is vapid and unsupported.
No, I'm not a fundie evangelical, and so yes its possible that the bible contains certain things that are false.
With that being said I don't see that OT practice of slavery being on based on false beliefs, but rather a product of the economic necessities of their tribes, unlike American Slavery being built on false beliefs regarding African Americans as not human, etc...
The OT writers didn't frame slavery in moral terms at all, they did't defend slavery or any moral grounds at all. If the survival of their tribes/communities depended on taking slaves from other tribe, that those are the hard practices they adopted.
Well, fine, that still leaves two questions. Are there other explanations other than factual error or falsehood that account for differences between past morals and present ones? If you don't like the biblical example, then use Roman moral beliefs about slavery in its stead. Those have certainly changed. I'm not clear on your point about the economic necessities of bible cultures. Are you suggesting they had different moral understandings on account of those factors, or are you suggesting they had the same moral understandings that we do, they just accepted an immoral practice out of need? If the latter, then I have to ask what evidence you have for this. The second question is what faculties allow us to recover or correct beliefs we have that are false or factually in error?
ETA: Three actually, as you haven't answered my concerns about the Gazzaniga quote.