RE: Isaiah 53, 700 B.C: Historical Evidence of the Divine Omniscience.
July 24, 2023 at 10:53 am
(This post was last modified: July 24, 2023 at 10:57 am by GrandizerII.)
Nishant Xavier Wrote:Just passing through. On my phone. Grandizer, did you see this from Isaiah 1:4: "See Isaiah 1:4 for e.g.: "Woe, sinful nation, people laden with iniquity, offspring who do evil, children who act corruptly, who have forsaken the Lord, who have despised the Holy One of Israel, who are utterly estranged!"
He clearly calls the people/nation sinful and laden with iniquity.
Yes, and? Nowhere in Isaiah 53 does it say the suffering servant was not sinful or laden with iniquity. There's a huge gap of context between Isaiah 1 and Isaiah 53 anyway.
Quote:Then he says the Servant was righteous, had done no violence, nor was there any deceit in His Mouth.
Context matters. In one context, Israel is considered righteous. In another context, it's the opposite. You see this so-called paradoxical duality regarding the overall character of the Israelites all the time in the Old Testament.
Quote:He also repeatedly says the Servant bears the sins of many and suffers and dies for the transgression of his, I.e. Isaiahs people, I.e. the Nation of Israel.
This is what a faulty translation would say, yes. But it's not the correct translation. Again, check the link I posted earlier.
Also, as Bucky pointed out more than once now, there are verses in Isaiah clearly referring to Israel as the Servant.