Isaiah 53, 700 B.C: Historical Evidence of the Divine Omniscience.

[Astreja]

I have a much simpler explanation, Nishant:

The writers who composed the Gospels deliberately wrote fictional scenes based on the Old Testament to make it appear that prophesies were fulfilled.

A reasonable hypothesis but what is your evidence to support it?

Mythologized histories are a fairly well-established part of the Greek canon (e.g. Herodotus, who included mythic elements in his Histories; compare with Thucydides, who avoided them).

It would make sense for the monotheistic Hellenic Jewish/Christian writers to follow suit, but to pull their myths and tropes from Isaiah and other OT books (instead of, say, the Iliad).

I haven't yet had a chance to study works in the original Greek, but an analysis from the literary/poetic side might turn up more evidence.