(September 17, 2025 at 5:21 pm)The Grand Nudger Wrote: Ofc not, just explaining the difference…both as I see it and as us law is premised… between rights being violated, and not having those rights.
Ability goes along the same route. Not having the ability to exercise a right also should not, and is not, contended to be the absence of its possession as a right.
How do you possess an abstract? Be specific.