(March 13, 2012 at 8:06 am)NoMoreFaith Wrote: So the question is thus; At what point were you able to exert a force upon the universe that changes the future. Was it at conception? The sensory development in the womb? The formation of the ego?
I think there is a critical error in this statement which gives it a form of a loaded question. You use the term "changing the future", which means that the future is in some sense predetermined - that there is a set course from which it may or may not deviate. In a question regarding free-will vs determinism, you are already presupposing determinism.
Now, as to the question itself, we can consider the timeline as a causal chain of events of which the person himself is a part. This causal chain plays the part in creating the person and therefore his "will" cannot be free from causality. Which, as I've maintained, it is not required to be. And since he too is a part of the causal chain, it cannot be independent of the person's will either. At this level of consideration, it makes no sense to discuss free-will, since the only thing here it can be free from is causality and nothing is free from causality.
The question of free-will becomes relevant when we consider the person as a separate section of the causal chain and seek to evaluate his role in it. At that point, free-will means relative freedom from rest of the causal chain. Here's where the question of free-will holds any relevance and where I consider it to be very real. Since the separation requires the agent to be an independent entity, I would say that the answer to your question is "at the formation of the ego."