(April 13, 2012 at 9:55 am)Drich Wrote: No for He defines Sin and Evil. The special exception is your personal defination of sin and evil.
No, he redefines sin and evil. The concepts of sin and evil - where Epicurius is concerned - were defined independently and prior to your bible. Your god may futilely attempt to redefine those concepts through the Church's sock-puppets, but when talking about the paradox, we'd use the meanings applicable in that context.