RE: Epicurean Paradox
April 13, 2012 at 12:14 pm
(This post was last modified: April 13, 2012 at 12:17 pm by Mister Agenda.)
Maybe if Drich had paid attention to my use of the term 'natural evil' he could have saved himself some work and not gotten the notion that he is the one introducing the concept that Epicurus was talking about human suffering rather than bad intentions. We've been trying to convince him of that. Is he for real?
The Paradox works against any God that is claimed to be both omnipotent and omnibenevolent. He could have just written a Paradox that would only apply to Zeus or Apollo, and their relatives, but he chose to write about any god with the attributes of omnipotence and omnibenevolence.
Again, Drich is not making these claims about his God so what's the big deal about Epicurus?
The Paradox works against any God that is claimed to be both omnipotent and omnibenevolent. He could have just written a Paradox that would only apply to Zeus or Apollo, and their relatives, but he chose to write about any god with the attributes of omnipotence and omnibenevolence.
Again, Drich is not making these claims about his God so what's the big deal about Epicurus?
