Epicurean Paradox

[genkaus]

Then please show me in the bible where God claims any Omni aspects you all have accredited to Him for Himself.

I am looking for book chapter and verse. Not what you heard or what a Bishop taught you nor even what some website says. We are talking about the God of the bible so it is to the bible we must differ our knowledge of God. (Not to your personal faith on God)

I thought that is what being god meant - being omnibenevolent and omnipotent. If you accept that your god is not all-powerful or all-good then the only question is "Why call him god"?

Why because Epicurus was not judging the God of the bible by any standard promised or set up by that God.
Why can't you guys understand that fact?

You are trying to compare Epicurus' apples to your Oranges.

Yes, we understand your argument. You are trying to first subvert the standards that have been set up by Epicurius, replace them with inferior standards of your god and then claim that the standards that were set up first are not applicable. Excuse us if we don't fall for the con.

What is pathetic is after all of this time you still do not understand that the God of the bible nor the bible it self, ascribes ANY of the omni aspects of God, that the faith of atheists think describe Him. These are your terms not His.

Again before you record another word (lest you look the fool) show me book chapter and verse in the bible where God calls or accepts the Omni aspects as you or Epicurus has defined them.

Otherwise accept that your understanding of God, this paradox, or even this conversation is well beyond the scope of what you are able to responsibly argue.

Ok, fine, then your god is not all-powerful, he is not all-good and by extension, he probably isn't all knowing either. This case is also addressed in the paradox - Why call him god? By Greek standards, your god is a poser.