Epicurean Paradox

[Drich]

Nope. I'll dredge back and find the posts for you. The general gist was that the omni-aspects are not doctrinal, so epicuras doesn't apply, but that the non-doctrinal omni-attributes contain "enough truth" to be claimed anyway..lol. I believe the analogy of an un-authorized biography was made. May have been in the thread that this thread bled over from. Not sure why he felt the need to create a new thread?

(at the time I thought maybe this was just some misunderstanding about what was entailed in a "consistent thought", but now I'm pretty convinced Drich is a troll)

How so? Because I am talking about aspects of Biblical Christianity that you are unfamiliar with?

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Nope. I'll dredge back and find the posts for you. The general gist was that the omni-aspects are not doctrinal, so epicuras doesn't apply, but that the non-doctrinal omni-attributes contain "enough truth" to be claimed anyway..lol. I believe the analogy of an un-authorized biography was made.

No need. I know that my first statement about the omni-aspects was established. I reiterated it for clarity.

I wanted the answer to the second point - that the biblical god doesn't measure up to the Epicurean standards of godliness.

No the God of the bible and the gods the Epicurean paradox do not promise the same things. they are not the same gods/God.

If you would take the time to read some of the other posts all of your questions have already been answered in detail.