(April 18, 2012 at 12:51 am)Drich Wrote: The epicurean paradox does not make such a compareson. you do, and no I do not agree with you.
Yes it does. The Epicurean paradox says "Is he neither able nor willing?
Then why call him God?"
The "he" here refers to whatever entity is posing as a god such as your biblical one, God refers to a god by Epicurean standards and the question here clearly a comparison between the two based on their qualities of ability and intent. Seems like a straightforward comparison to me.