Epicurean Paradox

[Drich]

[quote='Drich' pid='274251' dateline='1334724689']
The epicurean paradox does not make such a compareson. you do, and no I do not agree with you.

Yes it does. The Epicurean paradox says "Is he neither able nor willing?
Then why call him God?"

If you think your quoted passage is indeed comparing the gods of Epicurus to the Hebrew God. Your reading comprehension is probably not where it should be to have these conversations. At least to the degree where you are insisting on asserting points that have nothing to do with the topic at hand.

What i see is Epicurus comparing his gods to his standard of morality (which were given over to him by his gods' prophets.) None of which have anything to do with the Hebrew God.
Lest you are suggesting a gentile/Greek philosopher with no Jewish ties somehow had access to the God of Abraham, and has judged him according to the standards and morality of gods he knew.

If this is what you are saying, The next question would be why would he seek the consul of a God from a "defeated people?" Back then that was a sure sign you were worshiping a false/weak god. No paradox was needed in his culture to prove the Hebrew God false in his mind.

Because of that Epicurus would have ignored the Hebrew God completely, and focused his worship on the strong gods of the mighty Roman Empire.
As such we can know what his gods promised him and his people in exchange for loyalty and sacrifice. Which is why he came up with method to judge the gods he has paid homage to all of his life and apparently did not get what he had bargained for.

The "he" here refers to whatever entity is posing as a god such as your biblical one, God refers to a god by Epicurean standards and the question here clearly a comparison between the two based on their qualities of ability and intent. Seems like a straightforward comparison to me.

perhaps you should take some time and research this paradox before further commenting. That's if you will not take my word for it.