(June 17, 2012 at 10:42 am)Tobie Wrote:(June 17, 2012 at 10:30 am)Drich Wrote: As 'he' did not specify to what evidence he was looking for, and as 'we' are speaking to the understanding or specific exegesis of a particular passage, then the request for said evidence would default to support the translation. Hence my comment to read the passage, for the evidence of the interpertation of the two verses in question were contained in the greater context of Paul's message.
Now to directly answer your query; Paul used the physical resurrection of Christ, and His promise to resurect the dead upon his second comming as proof.
What you posted was the claim. You have not supplied any evidence that this happens, much less proved it.
This "evidence" you say paul used is extremely dubious - for it to be admissible as evidence, it first has to be proved jesus existed, than that he resurrected and promised to resurrect the dead. Then, you'd have to show why these things mean that 1 Corinthians 15:42-49 is true. I doubt you'll get past the first of these premises.
How many times do we personally need to have this discussion?
Read the post by darwinian.
