(August 28, 2012 at 10:09 pm)FallentoReason Wrote: I feel like there's a double standard happening here. Why do we all agree that tangible evidence for a god (e.g. personal revelation) voids free will? We speak of free will in that instance as if there actually is free will, but then on this thread you all seem to agree that free will doesn't exist anyways..? I'm so confused.
Its the rhetorical stance we take rather than believing freewill exists. For the sake of the discussion, we grant the theists their "freewill" and then try to point out the paradox.
However, as my xtian room-mate argues, the will of a person is free as long as s/he adheres (or is limited) to the Christian principles. Its freewill, but not free as the dictionary definition of free.
