RE: The abortion paradox
September 6, 2012 at 6:53 pm
(This post was last modified: September 6, 2012 at 6:57 pm by Anomalocaris.)
(September 6, 2012 at 5:16 pm)genkaus Wrote:(September 6, 2012 at 4:55 pm)ChadWooters Wrote: I'm not understanding the criteria by which you distinguish between the unborn (at 8-months for example), which according to you have no rights, and the others which you believe do.
I told you already. Whether it can survive without the mother or not.
It seems to me the right of an fetus to life is confered by the willingness of the mother to give it birth.
If the mother is not willing, then the fetus does not acquire the right. Once the mother commits herself to either giving it birth or an appropriate equivalent thereof, such as caesarisn followed by incubation, then the fetus acquires the right.
A in-womb fetus has no independent claim to any rights except through the intention of the woman of whom it is a part to separate it from herself and add it to the human society. Prior to that the fetus is not part of the society but part of her. So it has whatever right the woman chooses to give to any other part of her body, like her toe nail, or her nose. After that the fetus becomes part of the society and has claim to the rights the society grant to all its members.