(September 15, 2012 at 9:47 am)genkaus Wrote:(September 14, 2012 at 10:47 pm)Drich Wrote: Ah, no.. Again. Because we are talking about God, and God is only defined by the bible. Which means The nature of God is revealed only through the hebrew and greek words I provided. (not the modern english dictionary interpertation of the word in question) I established God is righteous and then defined the word in the context in which they were orginally written.
what you have done is ignored the orginal meaning of the word and context, then you supplimented your understanding of God with modern terms you are comfortable with. Again your arguement fails because you do not address God as He has been orginally defined.
Ah, yes.. Again. Because your god is not just defined in the bible, he is defined in lot of other places as well. And given that your bible is known to self-contradictory and erronous at so many points, it is easily conceivable that whatever sense it used a particular word in might also be used mistakenly. And all this pales in the face of the fact that a simple search reveals that the meaning of the original greek and hebrew words were no different than the modern interpretation.
Your bible is not a book on linguistics. It may use the word righteous (or whatever the greek or hebrew equivalent may be), but the meaning of those words is not established by the bible. And since I see all these greek, hebrew and english words simply mean "moral" and I see no evidence of them ever meaning otherwise, I see no reason to give any credit to your vacuous distinction.
Hi genkaus,
Actually, Drich is totally confused. He can't even explain why he chose the 66 books of the Bible as inspired. He can't name a single Church Council or a single Church Father or indeed anyone who decided on the 66 books as the Word of God. Just see this post:
http://atheistforums.org/thread-14712-po...#pid336877
He has refused to be clear how many books of the Bible are the Word of God because he knows he has no leg to stand on.
What puzzles me is how can fundies set so much store by the Bible when they don't even know a thing about the history of biblical canon and their knowledge of early church history is so poor.