Like it or not, God is immoral.

[Drich]

I've never heard anyone ever claim that the your god is sourced only in the bible.

Seriously? This is the cornerstone of the atheist arguements that their isn't any proof of God outside of the bible.
This is atheism 101.

There are references to him all over the place - in culture, arts, literature. None of it counts as proof of your god - just his attributes.

None of which would be possiable if God was not first defined by scripture.

In fact, as some of the theists on this forum argue, a lot of your god's attributes are not in fact in the bible but come from "interpretations".

again no interpertation would be possiable if not for the bible to extrapolate and interprete from.

Really? Can you give me that source? Because from what I can find out there is not nor has there ever been any distinction in the meanings of righteousness and adherence to morality. In fact, the most common argument is that its because your god is morally upright (which, in fact, he is not) that righteousness can be attributed to him.

I did, the source was the blue letter bible. just type in a word and it will give you every instance of that word. Just find one that speaks of the nature of God and click on the number beside "righteousness."

If by "extrapolated" you mean "creatively interpreted" - I believe you. But since you had to extrapolate, it means that that was not how it was originally used in Hebrew and Greek - otherwise, you wouldn't have had to "extrapolate". The definition would have indicated it clearly.

By extrapolate I mean to say to choose or pick apart from the modern interpertation of that word that you have been repersenting. And again it seem you are not familiar with how a lexicon works, or have chosen to ignore it in favor of your own arguement. It gives specific uses and instances/context in which a word is used.

The blueletterbible.com, huh? Yeah, that sounds completely impartial. Don't tell me, show me. Show me that it ascribes the particular meaning in the particular verses and why does it do so. Remember, you'd also have to show that the meaning of righteousness is distinct form morality.

So giving you a link to the source material is not enough? are you so brainwash into people predigesting information and telling you how to think you are asking the man repersenting an opposing arguement to tell you how to use his website? Why not do a google search and try it yourself? Because if I simply give a link to page you will not know how or why I got there. Unless you are asking how to use a lexicon in general. Is this what you are asking?

Go ahead, prove me wrong.

appreantly so. this is for the Hebrew word do you want one for the greek as well?
http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexi...6666&t=KJV

Well, you state that righteousness is an attribute solely of god,

No I did not. Cut and past the message where i supposedly said this.

it has been used to describe men in biblical verses as well. Therefore, it cannot be an attribute solely of god.

It seems someone is changing his position as to try and save face.

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Again, If morality is the ever changing standard of man, then man can judge anything moral or immoral. So, men have judged God Immoral.. So, what?

The so what amounts to an ultimately vain an attempt to make themselves look better not much different than the attack ads that flood American television this time of year.

Every been to jail? My father was a prison gaurd for like 10 years or so. What 'this' reminds me of is the stories of murders and rapists ganging together to beat up what they consider to be the 'low lifes.'
i remember thinking, How can a man convicted of a terriable crime and sentenced to life in prison feel the justification to judge his terriable crime any less terriable that someone elses... Then it dawned on me.. The Meaning of Self Righteousness. In that One deems himself or his 'morality' as the true righteous standard. It is only from this position of absolute righteousness (derived from with in himself) that he can judge another when he himself has blood on his hands. Now think of the level of self righteousness needed to judge God from this position of hyprocrisy and truly feel one is justified in his judgement.

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I don't care what the Bible says because the Bible is a seriously flawed collection of ancient books.

Once you involve yourself in a discussion and choose to repersent content or interperate said content of any book then you are bound by the limits of that content dispite what you think about the book as a whole. In otherwords you can not use the bible to define the nature of God and then frame a question by that defination Then discount the bible when it is used to answer your question. For it is through the bible your question was framed, and it is through the bible it is answered. To argue otherwise is an appeal failed logic.

What I hope to show you in the other thread is simply this: there is no basis for you to say that the 66 books of the Bible are the inspired word of God.

then put your efforts there. This thread is about the meaning of righteousness. If you have nothing to add then have the decency not to add filler for the sake of doing so.