Like it or not, God is immoral.

[Drich]

Except god neither defined himself nor wrote the bible. People who wrote the bible defined god in it as they see fit.

This would have made a good arguement if you lead with it, but as it is this effort seems like a desperate attempt to salvage your personal pride.

So we should summarily discard your claims about distinction between morality and righteousness then?

Only if you wish to also dismiss an accurate protrayal of the relationship between righteousness and 'morality.'

And it doesn't indicate that the attribute means anything different that being morally upright. You are the one being obstinate and ignorant.

Defination1B says otherwise. Can't you admit when you are wrong and been shown to be a fool for argueing reference material? If no, then simply remain silent. It is better to be thought of as a fool, than open say/write something and prove everyone right. The Lexicon plainly says Righteousness is an attribute of God. Defination 1B Nothing elses needs to be said here.

Nope. You're just wrong.

Nuh-uh.

1) justice, righteousness
a) righteousness (in government)
b) righteousness (of God's attribute)
1) of judge, ruler, king
2) of law
3) of Davidic king Messiah
c) righteousness (in a case or cause)
d) righteousness, truthfulness
e) righteousness (as ethically right)
f) righteousness (as vindicated), justification, salvation
1) of God
2) prosperity (of people)
g) righteous acts

http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexi...6666&t=KJV

I search in vain for any distinction between righteousness and morality - but there is none.

I have pointed out several times in this thread that 'Morality" Is mans attemp at his own version of righteousness. I even pointed to the 'Self Righteousness' needed to judge God. to which you have even given a heart felt example.... Do you still need me to spell it out for you or do you get it yet???

Man's Morality is what the bible/Christ refers to as Self righteousness. This behaivor is catagorically condemned across the board by Christ through several parables that he taught. For the sin we are willing to accept or to incorperate into our lives like gossip, white lies or even something as big as homosexuality, has been deemed unacceptable by God and His stated righteousness. So inorder for one to accept these sins as accepted or moral behaivor, then one must have a righteousness apart from God. this 'righteousness' is often derived from one's self or the community in which he chooses to live.

Every meaning of the word given in the Hebrew definition is synonymous with morality.

No it is not for i have just shown you where man's 'Morality' differs from God's stated righteousness. therefore the two words are Not ALWAYS synomous. There are 'moral acts to be considered righteous, but not all of man's morality is compatiable with Godly Righteousness. Therefore the two words can not be used interchangably. Not by an honest man anyway.

It even goes as far as to indicate different entities to which the term righteous can be attributed (god, government, man) and does not use a separate term for society and god -

Indeed it does in that all the things listed must comply with the standards of God. Read the defination and the suplimentary materials on the linked page again.

as you do - which would indicate that righteousness - which means the same thing as morality - can, like morality, have different standards.

Not even close. The on page defination does not support your assertion. reset and try again this time use the on page definations and commentary. otherwise know your commentary will be rightfully trivilized and dismissed.

Just as your god is the perfect example of self-righteousness needed to judge humanity. I'm not changing anything.

So you believe yourself to be on par with God? And because God has the authority to dictate righteousness, you do as well?

Goodluck with trying to sell God on that one.