Like it or not, God is immoral.

[genkaus]

It would if we had lexicons that made morality and righteousness interchangeable. as it is, they do not. Because Man's morality is derived from self righteous behaivor. Which is a sin.

Actually we do and they do.

empty conjecture. All you have to do is provide topical reference material to shut me up.

Go consult a dictionary. And then shut up.

Just because you are not willing to admit change in your own life for the sake of this arguement does not mean it has never changed.

So, you can understand the same standard being applied to your god.

(Fallacy: special pleading)

Exactly. So you see how all your talk about your god's righteousness just boils down to the fallacy of special pleading?

Then use the bible and a lexicon to show me that what you have adopted to be true in your life is indeed true contextually in the New and old testaments. otherwise your arguement fails.

What are you blabbering about? I've adopted nothing from the new or old testaments. Why would I? I know it to be a pile of shit.

Book Chapter and Verse please or even Give me a blue letter reference number. otherwise know your arguement has failed.

You already have the reference number. Check out the word "righteousness" and then compare it to the common dictionary meaning of moral.

Then proove it show me where in the bible God accepts man's morality as his own or even on par with his stated righteousness. Otherwise know your arguement fails.

Are you being intentionally obtuse or are you just that stupid? Why would you expect bible to accept man's morality when it already holds god's morality as superior. I don't accept your god's morality because I hold mine to be superior.

If it meant the same thing then the lexicon would have made a note of it.

No, it wouldn't. A lexicon is not a thesaurus. The thesaurus, in fact, does make note of it.

The lexicon would have used the word morality to define righteousness at least in one instance. there are 6 words (that I counted in 2 mins) that the bible uses in the hebrew and in the greek that all get translated into the word righteous or righteousness.
'Morality" is not apart of any of those definations.

Actually, it is. If you look at other lexicons, apart form just that one, which, as it happens, doesn't seem to know that the word morality even exists, you'd find that righteousness is synonymous to morality.

As the lexicon consistantly reads, something has to be Ethically right (as per God expressed will) to be considered to righteous. Not all things that man has deemed 'moral' are considered to be ethically right in accordance with God's expressed will. I gave the example of Gay marriage or even Gay rights. Our soceity says it is immoral to keep gay couples from Getting married. This is an example of man's morality and where it is not consistent with God's expressed will and therefore could not be considered "ethically right." Meaning by God's standard in the Hebrew and Greek words defining the term this is not a righteous act.

You are not saying anything new here. Allowing gay marriage is ethically right (and therefore righteous) according to society's morality, but not according to god's morality. But since god's morality is not ethically right according to society's morality, god is not righteous according to society's standards but he is according to his own - which makes him self-righteous.

Before you spin up a ton of empty conjecture to pad your empty arguement based on your current 'feelings' on what these words me to you or rather what you think these words should mean to everyone. Bring some more real to this discussion show me reference material or something other than your emasculated personal philosphies and well wishing. Understand you are not argueing me. you are argueing recognized reference material your only hope to have a legitmate arguement is to trump my reference material with something more accepted. (oh, and good luck with finding a source that translates hebrew and greek that will support your arguement that is more respected than the Blue letter bible.)

Go look at a dictionary and your lexicon. The dictionary defines morality and righteousness as synonymous. Your lexicon translates the greek and hebrew words as righteousness. The synonyms for both given in dictionary as well as the lexicon (justice, ethically right, truthfulness etc) apply consistently. There is no indication of distinction in usage anywhere - either in the dictionary or the lexicon. Therefore, they mean the same thing - res ipsa.....

That said, I am not saying you can't crap all over the orginal meaning of the Hebrew and greek words and use them any way you wish. Just understand when speaking of the Hebrew or Greek as it pertains to how the scripture were orginally meant to be understood morlaity is nothing more than self righteousness. And to judge God by your own self righteousness is foolish.

Thus, god's morality is god's self-righteousness. If he feels free to judge us by his morality, we should feel free to judge him by ours.

It's neither a good or bad thing. I simply pointed out this is the 2nd or 3rd time i gone down this road in this thread. You all can't seem to seperate Righteousness from morality, and I found it true that you can not make the conection between your beloved morality and self righteousness. I was trying to spare ben from dragging him through the same mud you went through.

Because righteousness and morality are the same thing. There is no distinction - as much as you'd like to pretend there is.