(September 17, 2012 at 8:30 am)Drich Wrote: This explaination has been refuted several times now in that not all things man considers to be 'moral' are righteous as per the Greek and Hebrew words. seperating God's righteousness from Man's morality.
The refutation has been refuted several times now that there is no categorical god's righteousness and man's morality since the words righteousness and morality are synonyms. Thus, while the contents of god's and man's righteousness maybe different, they both fall under the same category of "morality". You haven't been able to provide any linguistic basis for distinction between "righteousness" and "morality", ignored all examples where righteousness is applied similarly to god and man and pretended as if the word "righteous" is an attribute solely applicable to god all the while conceding that that is not, in fact, the case.
But I don't expect you to learn anything from the complete refutation of your arguments. In fact, I expect that whenever the question of your god's immorality comes up, you'll jump in with the same tired old tripe, trying to evade the issue by claiming that morality is not applicable to your god. Well, you can try and we will start the whole tango all over again.
