(September 17, 2012 at 9:30 am)genkaus Wrote: The refutation has been refuted several times now that there is no categorical god's righteousness and man's morality since the words righteousness and morality are synonyms.Not in the Hebrew or Greek which is what we are discussing. As the bible is the sole legitmate source for cataloging the attributes of the God of the bible. Because the bible (in the hebrew and in the greek) seperate morality and Righteousness, any honest discussion concerning the nature of the God of the bible must adhear to what has been seperated.
Again this does not mean you can pretend and say that my bible is in english therefore it is subject to my understanding of the modern dictionary. Again that is fine and dandy, but also understand that is not proper exegesis of the Bible, and subsequently not an accurate repersentation of the God it describes. I guess you see this as well which is why you are argueiing from a point of faith rather than reference material.
which means the rest of your post can be dismissed as uninformed commentary.
