(September 17, 2012 at 10:58 am)genkaus Wrote: Except, they have not been separated even in the bible. According to YOUR lexicon, the word righteousness is used everywhere where the word morality is applicable and the word morality is used nowhere - thereby indicating there is no separation.Then this conversation boils down to one simple task. In that you must prove your claim. Show us where the lexicon uses the word morality interchangably with Righteousness. I have noted 6 different words in the hebrew and in the greek that get translated into Righteousness or righteous, none of which make the distinction you claim, in that the word morality is never even mentioned, let alone used interchangably.
So again using topical reference material show me what you 'feel to be true' is indeed truth.
Quote:No, just the translations.Your right it is not a difficult concept to understand you are affirming the consenquent.
It's not a difficult concept. Your bible is trnslated from Hebrew or Greek into modern English. The Lexicon lists the modern English counterparts of the words in Hebrew and Greek. The lexicon chose the word righteousness, which, in modern English is the same as morality. Therefore, the Greek and Hebrew words also mean the same thing as morality. Try to understand the simple concept that if A=B and B=C, then, A=C.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Affirming_the_consequent