To the OP: it's a definition thing for me. You ask if there's 'a' god. The indefinite article's a generalism which triggers the 'I must be honest and say I can't prove there's no god of any kind...' response. If however you'd asked 'Is there an Abrahamic God?', my answer would be 'No'. The Abrahamic God has a specific set of definitions which are mutually contradictory (e.g. Jews, Xtians & Muslims define the same god with different attributes). That means the Abrahamic God, as defined, cannot exist as the definitions defy the laws of identity & non-contradiction.
So was the generality deliberate in order to trigger particular discussions (e.g. identify those who overstate claims) or was it just a slip of the keyboard?
So was the generality deliberate in order to trigger particular discussions (e.g. identify those who overstate claims) or was it just a slip of the keyboard?
Sum ergo sum
