The logical consequences of omnipotence

[Esquilax]

As you define it, I would say that no, the God of the Bible is not omnipotent. Few English versions of the Bible claim he is. The only time I've seen it is one instance in the KJV, which was made famous by Handel. The same underlying word is translated as "almighty" elsewhere in the KJV. Once I searched nine common English versions for "omnipotent" and that one instance in the KJV is the only one I found.

Seems to me that a being which is almighty can do anything achievable by might. A being which is all powerful can do anything achievable by power. One could conceivably be all powerful yet unable to complete the TV Guide crossword puzzle, as power isn't used to solve the puzzle.

Before you reply, I should tell you I'm aware of standard atheist apologetics, which attempt to expand power to include knowledge, logic, and pretty much everything else.

Except you dudes also try to slip omnipresence and omniscience in there, don't ya? If he doesn't have omniscience, then not only does god's ineffable plan suddenly become very effable, but god also becomes unable to know us all and judge us for our sins.

And an omniscient god who is also almighty and all powerful would be able to achieve anything and also know anything, so...

Oh, yeah: original point still stands. Because changing the definitions of a few words and selectively ignoring a few others doesn't alter the correctness of the original point.