The logical consequences of omnipotence

[John V]

As you define it, I would say that no, the God of the Bible is not omnipotent. Few English versions of the Bible claim he is. The only time I've seen it is one instance in the KJV, which was made famous by Handel. The same underlying word is translated as "almighty" elsewhere in the KJV. Once I searched nine common English versions for "omnipotent" and that one instance in the KJV is the only one I found.

Seems to me that a being which is almighty can do anything achievable by might. A being which is all powerful can do anything achievable by power. One could conceivably be all powerful yet unable to complete the TV Guide crossword puzzle, as power isn't used to solve the puzzle.

Before you reply, I should tell you I'm aware of standard atheist apologetics, which attempt to expand power to include knowledge, logic, and pretty much everything else.

Again, I have debated other theists here and atheists too.

I've been doing this 10+ years. Whoop-de-doo.

The new answer of "no he is not all powerful" is a dodge

What's with the quotes? I said he's not omnipotent as one person defined omnipotence. I argued that he is all powerful, and noted that most English Bibles use "almighty," not omnipotent.

and a new form of watering down from what people in the past wanted to believe. They got caught on the omi claims now they are trying to dodge them.

Can you support that Christians in the past wanted to believe that God could create a square circle or some such? Have you actually studied the history of the concept?

But even this new version of "power through might" still does not work morally or even scientifically.

Your proclamation is noted.

Once you swallow a naked assertion you can always move the pieces when others see they don't fit.

What assertion did I swallow naked?

Seems to me OP probably swallowed some youtube argument naked, and I'm actually trying to think it through. Go figure.