(January 4, 2010 at 8:41 pm)theVOID Wrote:(January 3, 2010 at 9:54 am)rjh4 Wrote: Specifically, from a Christian perspective given the propositions:
1.God is omnipotent.
2.God is omnibenevolent.
3.God is omniscient.
4.Evil exists
We can draw the conclusion:
5. God has a benevolent reason for the evil that exists.
If God has a benevolent reason for the existence of Evil then it must be because he is unable to achieve his goals in an omnibenevolent way, meaning he is not omnipotent.
If God is omnipotent then he could easily achieve his goals without evil but chooses not to, meaning he is not omnibenevolent.
Your concept of God is either Omnipotent OR Omnibenevolent - it would be illogical for him to be both.
Before I try to address what you are saying, I need to know: How do you define "evil", "omnipotent", and "ominbenevolent" in your post above. You seem to be assuming we look at these the same way. But I doubt we do. See my previous response to E regarding "evil" and that if you take this as meaning what E thinks it means, the whole thing is unintelligible.
