RE: John the Baptist
September 6, 2013 at 12:56 pm
(This post was last modified: September 6, 2013 at 12:59 pm by Bad Writer.)
I suspect an explanation from Drich as to how Jesus' pre-ministry was quite different from the one accomplished during his Messiah-hood that he took up after his baptism at the hands of JtB.
And as for your comment, ronedee:
Pay attention in class! Nowhere did Min ever say that Pilate was a King or a Jew. Do only kings have subjects?
And as for your comment, ronedee:
(September 6, 2013 at 12:55 pm)ronedee Wrote:(September 6, 2013 at 11:53 am)Minimalist Wrote: This does of course throw all sorts of monkey wrenches into the xtian timeline for their godboy and Josephus does not mention the marriage in relation to JtheB, anyway...only that Antipas considered him a troublemaker. Of course, JtheB was a citizen of Judaea which would have made him Pilate's subject and not Antipas' and raises the question of why JtheB would give a rat's ass about who the king of another country married.
This last is in keeping with the general garbling of history that we see in these so-called gospels. They botch the idea that Herod the Great's kingdom was divided among his children and treat Galilee and Judaea as the same country for the purposes of the absurd "census" which didn't happen anyway. Indeed, the last empire-wide lustrum - or counting of Roman citizens - took place in 73 under Vespasian and the gospel writers assumed that such events were commonplace so they invented one to get "jesus" to be born in Bethlehem.
The whole thing is a pile of shit created by poor writers who were not interested in history but in creating theology....which should not even be an academic subject.
Since when was Pilate a king, or a Jew?
John that Baptist was concerned about the sins of the leaders of the Jewish people.
You should include your last statement about your own references.
Pay attention in class! Nowhere did Min ever say that Pilate was a King or a Jew. Do only kings have subjects?