Genocide in the Old Testament

[John V]

So, in addtion to God not being able to make us suffer without giving us free will, he is also unable to give us consciousness without giving us free will?

I'll go along with that for the sake of argument. So we clearly have free will since we are conscious and can suffer, and therefore if there is a God, it can't be omniscient, in particular, it can't know what we're going to think in advance of us knowing it.

Depends on how you define free will. An approach based on outcomes seems to preclude omniscience. I've discussed it using formal logic and it's never held up, which is why I say "seems to." Even if it holds up, though, a definition based on processes isn't problematic for omniscience.