(February 28, 2014 at 12:06 pm)Huggy74 Wrote: Here is the rest of that passage for context.
Leviticus 25
47 “Suppose a foreigner or temporary resident becomes rich while living among you. If any of your fellow Israelites fall into poverty and are forced to sell themselves to such a foreigner or to a member of his family, 48 they still retain the right to be bought back, even after they have been purchased. They may be bought back by a brother, 49 an uncle, or a cousin. In fact, anyone from the extended family may buy them back. They may also redeem themselves if they have prospered.
Sounds voluntary to me. Crazy how people would sell themselves, and be subjected to being beat within an inch of their life. Also where is the "slave" getting money to redeem himself from? [/sarcasm]
I see: so your response to an unambiguous bible passage stating that foreigners may be bought and sold as property is to point to another passage stating that the rules are different if the slave happens to be Jewish?

All that passage says that if a Jew becomes enslaved to a foreigner, he can be bought back. It doesn't even address the issue of foreign slaves bought by Jews!
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