(March 6, 2014 at 10:18 am)Ben Davis Wrote: The things that are telling about your post:
1. You refuse to acknowledge the 'ownership of people as property' rules in the biblical laws of 'servitude'. In fact, you seem to talk about every other rule in a fairly knowledgeable way so I have to assume you're aware that the rules explicitly stated that people were owned as property.
already been over this many times.
show me in the King James version where it "explicitly states" people be owned as property
Quote:2. Your failure to directly answer the questionsI'll answer your question and in turn i'll ask you a direct yes or no
question, do you believe the words "property' an "possession" to mean the same thing?
Quote:So to your answers:No
1. It matters not whether the society was feudal, agrarian, capitalist, communist, anarchist or anything else. So I'll rephrase my question to (hopefully!) make you commit to a direct answer: given the opportunity, would you own another person as property?
Quote:2. Once again a dodge. Your mortgage does not strip you of your right to self-determination. So once again, I'll rephrase: would you submit to being stripped of your right to self-determination?yes
it seems everything has to be spelled out for you guys. Self determination is defined as: determination by oneself or itself, without outside influence, or freedom to live as one chooses, or to act or decide without consulting another or others. So therefore by having a mortgage I take on something called "responsibility" . My "self determination" may be to sit at home all day everyday and relax, but if I want to keep my house I need to have a job like it or not.