(March 6, 2014 at 11:43 pm)Esquilax Wrote:(March 6, 2014 at 9:15 pm)Huggy74 Wrote: except that in the King James version of the Bible the word "slave" appears only once in Jeremiah and "slaves" appears once in Revelation. please explain their true context.
Because if they don't use the word, they can't be describing the practice.
That's why "ethnic cleansing" leaves everyone nice and clean, and isn't a pogrom at all! Do you not get how utterly ridiculous this argument is, Huggy?
Exact quote:
(March 6, 2014 at 8:48 pm)Cinjin Wrote: - Says the guy who for the last two days has been doing verbal gymnastics over the true context and implications of the word 'slaves' in the Bible.
other than the two places I already mentioned the words slave and slaves is not the KJV Bible. So explain how I can take a word that doesn't exist out of context?
Jeremiah 2:14 KJV
Is Israel a servant? is he a homeborn slave? why is he spoiled?
If the words servant/slave are same, then why the distinction in this verse? wouldn't it be totally redundant?
