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Evidence for God being "a superior being" ?
#51
RE: Evidence for God being "a superior being" ?
(June 13, 2010 at 12:32 am)ecolox Wrote:
(June 12, 2010 at 8:52 pm)tavarish Wrote: You have still to explain WHY God has a specific nature, which was my question.

Why do you have a personality?

Non-sequitur. I'm not an infinite being, nor do I possess the ability to go against the laws of nature to which I am bound. My personality is largely irrelevant and a bad analogy.
(June 13, 2010 at 12:28 am)tackattack Wrote:
(June 12, 2010 at 1:09 pm)tavarish Wrote: 1. You didn't answer my question. I asked you why God has a nature, not if he HAS to have a nature. Why does God have a particular nature instead of no nature or a different nature?
2. First, I'm not alleging that I'm the author of my being, or the author of the natural laws I'm bound by. I'm a finite being, which isn't a good analogy. I'm asking if God can do things like lie and create a squared circle, and if not, why not?
3. What constructs have to be in place in order for a being such as God to have an effective will rather than an ineffective will? It is assumed God is the creator, but why is this so?
4. So why is he bound by a nature if there isn't anything he can't do?


Is there anything about God's existence that distinguishes him from being non-existent? Not that I can currently measure.

So if there isn't a way that God is distinguishable as being existent, how can you make the claim that he exists? Is there any good reason or argument you can put forth that would convey such a thing?

(June 13, 2010 at 12:28 am)tackattack Wrote: 1- Why does God have one nature as opposed to another nature or anything nature at all? As an entity it's defined by having a definite, individual existence and is real in itself. Surely God believes God is real.

That made no sense and didn't answer the question, but it could be that I just didn't understand it properly. Can you rephrase it please?

(June 13, 2010 at 12:28 am)tackattack Wrote: 2- I suppose God could lie or create a square circle, yes.

So why doesn't he?

(June 13, 2010 at 12:28 am)tackattack Wrote: 3a-I'm tired you're going to have to define "effective will" and "ineffective will" for me please.

Effective will = God wills something and it happens, something akin to Genesis 1.
Ineffective will = God wills something and it doesn't happen.

What constructs have to be in place in order for things to follow God's will?

(June 13, 2010 at 12:28 am)tackattack Wrote: 3b-The Judeo God is considered the creator because design is seen in nature and the Bible states he created.

So the Christian God is the creator because Christian doctrine says so.

(June 13, 2010 at 12:28 am)tackattack Wrote: 4-I don't think God is bound by the "laws of nature" but bound by his nature as an entity, you're confusing the definition.

WHY is God bound to a necessary nature?

Keep in mind I'm assuming for the sake of argument that God is the author of natural law. It would not follow that he would have to be bound by a specific nature if he is in fact a prescribing force.
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Messages In This Thread
RE: Evidence for God being "a superior being" ? - by tavarish - June 13, 2010 at 1:04 am

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