(July 20, 2010 at 4:46 pm)The Omnissiunt One Wrote: For the Bible to be taken seriously as a moral guide, it should have explicitly condemned slavery, otherwise it is no moral guide at all.
This is an interesting claim.
Is this merely your opinion or do you rely on some objective standard of morality that leads you to this conclusion? If the latter, what is that objective standard? (I have somewhat been following your conversation with PR and I think you have alluded to some objective standard but I did not read anything where you explained what it was. Maybe I missed something. If so, could you please at least point me to your explanation?) If the former, doesn't that throw you back into moral relativism which you seem to reject?
