Theistic morality

[rjh4 is back]

The fact it's not literal and ultimately comes down to common sense shows that it's not so much as a 'rule' as a guideline. A guideline that isn't original to the Bible too.

I don't think I ever referred to it as a "rule" and I am not clear as to why this is even relevant to the question I asked (the last one directed to Omni). Even if the "guideline" I follow is not original with the Bible it is certainly still Biblical and my question still remains relative to the advantages of preference utilitarianism in making moral decision over the approach I follow.