Ask a Catholic

[Huggy Bear]

If a police officer shouts to a fleeing bank robber, "Stop in the name of the law!", is he really only specifying the authority of one thing, "the law'? Or is it really the authority of:

1) the specific code of law written by politicians, 
2) the police department who enforce the law, 
3) the entire criminal justice system

that the officer is asserting? It's all of the above, right?

I would argue none of the above.
It's the Policeman's badge that provides the authority, all he needs to yell is "stop".
The "in the name of the law" part is unnecessary.

You try yelling "Stop in the name of the law!" and see how it works out.

Catholics have been baptizing using the Trinitarian formula from the earliest days. There is a document of early Christian practices from about 50 AD called the DIDACHE (pronounced did-a-kay) that details how the early Christians baptized:

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"In regard to baptism - baptize thus: After the foregoing instructions, baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. If you have no living water, then baptize in other water; and if you are not able in cold, then in warm."

 The Didache is not inspired scripture, but it is a key piece of historical evidence about what the Church thought and did in the earliest days. 

So Catholics baptize using the trinitarian formula because of tradition? What did Jesus say about tradition?

Matthew 15:6
Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.

As you know, Jesus commanded the disciples to baptize in the "NAME" of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost. What is the name of the "Father, Son and Holy Ghost"?

As you also know, Jesus gave Peter the keys to the kingdom of heaven, So when Peter was asked what must be done to get into heaven, his reply was to "repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ"...... THAT is the KEY to heaven (for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. - Acts 4:12). Peter having a revelation of who Jesus Christ was, knew that Jesus WAS the Father, Son and Holy Ghost. As the Bible clearly states Jesus was the FULLNESS of the Godhead (Godhead being Father, Son and Holy Ghost) bodily.

Colossians 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

Therefore by the tradition of baptizing using the trinitarian formula, the Catholic church makes that a baptism of "none effect".

Acts 19:3 
So Paul asked, “Then what baptism did you receive?” “John’s baptism,” they replied.

Paul specifically asks what type of baptism they had received. They had received "John's Baptism"; they had not received the baptism of Jesus.

By proclaiming baptisms be done "in the name of Jesus Christ", the inspired author of Acts was merely attempting to disassociate ourselves from the baptisms done by other sects.

It was not an instruction on how to baptize.

The reason Paul commanded them to be re-baptized was because they were baptized unto repentance of sin, Jesus had not yet died for remission of sin. In order for them to receive the Holy spirit, they had to be baptized for remission of sin. Being baptized in the "tradition" of John the baptist shows that baptism longer had an effect.

Acts 19
2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.