Why be good?

[pocaracas]

errr.... wasn't that the very same thing I quoted?
Keep reading, because I quoted a bit more than you!

Yes, I know. It appeared to me that you did not seem to understand that the authors of the passage you quoted are speaking of two different usages of the term "Babylon".

1. Peter used "Babylon" as code for Rome in his first epistle.

Come on... they address that specifically:
1.

Some assert that Peter’s use of the term Babylon (1Pe. 1Pe. 5:13) must point to Rome. But this is an argument from silence. It is also possible to take Peter’s mention of Babylon as denoting the city on the banks of the Euphrates, which served as a center of Jewry beyond the time of Peter’s writing (see Babylon’s Historic Fall).