RE: Events that Led to the Civil War: Slavery as an Economic Engine Not a Moal Isssue
June 22, 2015 at 10:11 pm
(This post was last modified: June 22, 2015 at 10:16 pm by Thumpalumpacus.)
(June 22, 2015 at 6:51 pm)Rhondazvous Wrote: Great Britain was the industrial capital of the world. If the north had to trade with the south as a separate nation, that would leave the north with no viable economic engine.
I disagree. Firstly, the North had a sound basis for heavy industry, in shipbuilding; it had huge deposits of iron ore around the Great Lakes; it had a healthy agricultural sector in the Ohio and Upper Mississippi basins; and it had international commerce with three large international ports in Boston, New York, and Philadelphia.
(June 22, 2015 at 6:51 pm)Rhondazvous Wrote: Clearly, hostilities began well before the “official start of the war” or else why were there Confederate soldiers and Union soldiers and why did the Union army have a fort on Confederate territory?
The fort was started building in 1828 in order to defend against a future war with Britain, or any other oceanic European power. It was manned by American soldiers. But you're right that hostilities started long before -- even long before Harper's Ferry. The border war in the Kansas and Missouri territories was a significant influence on Congressional attitudes about westward expansion, and they were largely based on differences over slavery.
(June 22, 2015 at 6:51 pm)Rhondazvous Wrote: Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation in September 1862, more than a year after the war started. This was a brilliant military strategy that had nothing to do with the president’s moral stance on slavery. He is quoted to have said that he didn’t care if the slaves were free or not as long as the union was held together.
It wasn't military strategy at all; it was political strategy. Lincoln aimed to comb some fence-sitters into the Union camp, and tug at European sentiments regarding the evils of slavery in order to further isolate the Confederacy -- but the fact is that the Union blockade by that time was already biting, and it only got worse.
Also, if you read the Emancipation Proclamation closely, you will find that it only emancipated slaves in Confederate territory -- i.e., in territory not conquered by the North. the EP did not apply to land conquered by the Northern Army. As such it was seen, even in that time, as a political gesture.
(June 22, 2015 at 6:51 pm)Rhondazvous Wrote: Since the Emancipation Proclamation only freed slaves in the states that had rebelled, how did it come about that at the end of the war, all the slaves were freed? Interesting question. We could explore this together. Anybody care to shed light on this?
They were probably freed in order to avert any more wars costing over 600,000 deaths, I would guess.