math tard, Help

[Alex K]

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Where is the flaw in this? Think it is division by 0 but not sure.

x=y
x squared = xy
x squared-y squared = xy-y squared
(x+y) (x-y)=y(x-y)
(x+y) (x-y)/(x-y)=y(x-y)/(x-y)
(x+y)=y

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OF COURSE ITS THE DIVIDE BY ZERO (x-y)=0.
I use this trick all the time with people who think a logical proof means anything in reality.
The next steps by the way is 2y=y so 2=1

I don't understand your statement. The whole point is that the above is not a logical proof because it contains hidden logically invalid conclusions. The fact that invalid arguments exist does not tell you anything about the applicability of valid arguments to reality.