RE: Will Humans Have Freewill in Heaven?
July 9, 2015 at 1:40 pm
(This post was last modified: July 9, 2015 at 1:45 pm by Metis.)
You know, seeing as I'm debating Randy on another Thread I was reluctant to poke my nose in on this one but theres just so many mistakes about basic matters of translation and doctrine Drich I can't resist.
Doulous, always and without exception in Koine Greek refers to a bond slave. You're quite right to say there were many different words to describe the status of a servant, but Doulous always refers to the lowest of the low, the slaves you can rape or kill at your leisure.
That's why it is chosen when used in non-literal references to Jesus, you are worthless before him, whatever worth you have is whatever he elects to elevate you to by his power and not your own alone.
The NT is pretty explicit in terminology which form it describes.
Not really, at least in the OT slaves had to be freed after a period of time, in the NT there is no obligation for them to be freed; you recall Paul's instruction to Philemon surely?
A book compiled by the Orthodox and Catholic Churches almost four hundred years after the foundation of Christianity. It always amuses me how "Bible Belivers" always refer to a textbook created by one of two institutions they fully believe to be pagan or heretical.
Why don't you just start quoting Anton LaVey or The Kama Sutra while you're at it plagiarizing other faiths eh?
Again, compiled by one of two institutions you believe to be pagan.
The bible was created by the Early Church as a repository of sacred literature to be used buy ecclesiastical figures. Most of the Hellenistic world couldn't read, and it was never intended to be read by the masses at large.
It's a tool for clerics so it should be no great suprise you won't find it claiming to be the be all and end all; because their authority was not that of the book.
http://www.evilbible.com/Biblical%20Contradictions.htm
Anyone can pick up a bible and find evidence to justify just about anything.
(July 9, 2015 at 1:27 pm)Drich Wrote: Does your definition embody paid employment? no you say? then your definition is not as expanded as the greek word used in the NT to describe slavery.http://biblehub.com/greek/1401.htm
That is literally because your definition of slavery is not as expansive as the greek word dullos. Because again the word dullos can mean a paid employee/servant. Matter of fact the word is used interchangeably with slave/servant over 120 times, with contextual preference being the only divider in the text.
In the greek there are 5 different words with 5 different aspects or meanings that we in the English translate into the single word 'love.' the same is true here with the word slave, but in reverse. The greeks have one word to describe 5 different aspects of 'service/employment' in the English.
Just because a literal translation will always translate Dullos into Slave/Servant does not mean that the bible is speaking of the 17th century cotton plantation variety.
Doulous, always and without exception in Koine Greek refers to a bond slave. You're quite right to say there were many different words to describe the status of a servant, but Doulous always refers to the lowest of the low, the slaves you can rape or kill at your leisure.
That's why it is chosen when used in non-literal references to Jesus, you are worthless before him, whatever worth you have is whatever he elects to elevate you to by his power and not your own alone.
Quote:Again you are only describing one aspect of slavery.
The NT is pretty explicit in terminology which form it describes.
Quote:Ok... So?
You do understand That the Old Testament represents a completely different religion that is no longer practiced anywhere in the world right? That is why in the New testament OT Jews who Practiced the rules and regulations found in the NT were known to have been converted To Christianity correct? And you are aware that The way 'slaves' were viewed and treated was indeed augmented from the Old to the New covenants right?
Not really, at least in the OT slaves had to be freed after a period of time, in the NT there is no obligation for them to be freed; you recall Paul's instruction to Philemon surely?
Quote:That's a simple question to answer.
I know the bible is God's word, because in the bible are a set of direction for one to literally find and have a interactive relationship with him.
I found and followed said instructions, resulting in promised relationship with the Holy Spirit. The same Holy Spirit that inspired the bible in the first place. it is through the Holy Spirit that God's bible has been verified.
A book compiled by the Orthodox and Catholic Churches almost four hundred years after the foundation of Christianity. It always amuses me how "Bible Belivers" always refer to a textbook created by one of two institutions they fully believe to be pagan or heretical.
Why don't you just start quoting Anton LaVey or The Kama Sutra while you're at it plagiarizing other faiths eh?
Quote:Actually it happens in reverse order. I know or am given a precept and then verify it in the bible through study.
Again, compiled by one of two institutions you believe to be pagan.
Quote:Actually the bible only claims to ever be the truth of God, and the tool used to find God. With in the pages of the bible it never claims to be infallible.
The bible was created by the Early Church as a repository of sacred literature to be used buy ecclesiastical figures. Most of the Hellenistic world couldn't read, and it was never intended to be read by the masses at large.
It's a tool for clerics so it should be no great suprise you won't find it claiming to be the be all and end all; because their authority was not that of the book.
Quote:examples?
http://www.evilbible.com/Biblical%20Contradictions.htm
Anyone can pick up a bible and find evidence to justify just about anything.
