(July 20, 2015 at 2:40 pm)robvalue Wrote:There doesn't need to be a point of time before all point of time if time is finite, but all points of time in an infinite time line would have to be preceded by a point of time (that's by it's definition) yet at the same not be preceded by a point of time from perspective of it's whole being...so it's paradoxical as all points of time would be preceded by a point of time and not as well by definition.Quote:If time was infinite, the whole of time would not be preceded by a point of time.
This is a tautology, and why is it a problem? Why must there be a point in time before all other points in time?
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Current time: August 16, 2025, 11:09 pm
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Apologetics open challenge
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