RE: Apologetics open challenge
July 20, 2015 at 3:01 pm
(This post was last modified: July 20, 2015 at 3:04 pm by Mystic.)
(July 20, 2015 at 2:59 pm)robvalue Wrote: No, infinite means there is no point which precedes all points. That's exactly what infinite is. For all points in time n, there exists another point in time m so that m<n. That is exactly what an infinite past means.
Both are implied by it's meaning, and hence it's irrational paradox. From one perspective, all points of time must be preceded by infinite points of time. From another perspective, the whole of time, is not preceded by a point of time. That is why it's a paradox. Both are implied.
Anyways, did you find any fault with the first argument for why time is temporal? That is argument 2. What about Argument 1?
