Adulterous woman

[Angrboda]

the law also states they must be in good standing with God.

. . . .

And the 3 part of this law is the accuser must also be in good standing with God as they are commanded to purge all evil from among them. which is why jesus was writing on the ground a list of sins so great their guilt forced them to walk away.

Where is your scriptural support for this point? Since John 8 is the passage in question, you can't use John 8, as that would be circular. What scripture supports this?

I read the article you cited, and it does nothing to support your point. Perhaps you're simply not explaining it well.

If I recall right, though, the new covenant means that getting right with God simply means having faith in Jesus. Probably something a Pharisee can't accomplish, but not something they would acknowledge either. So your argument is that the law could not be carried out by persons who had sinned. I see a problem with that in that the law would never be carried out, as the New Testament makes clear, all have sinned. Yet, I suspect the law was carried out. How do you explain that paradox?

(ETA: It also occurs to me that even if the witnesses should be stoned for their sins, since Jesus is the only witness to their sin, and the law requires two witnesses, Jesus' calling out their sins was without any practical effect.)