Why does god want to cut off women's hands?

[John V]

I don't know - the verse makes no mention of it.

Lets be straight here - I had no idea this verse existed until the op brought it up and then, tbh, I doubted it enough to get my bible out and check.

You have to admit it is a very strange law and very specific. It does appear it is the fact that her hand touched another man's penis/testicles that is the problem. Who is at fault, whether or not it was accidental and whether or not any lasting damage was done doesn't carry any water - she loses her hand.

Frankly - you tell me - this is too alien a legal framework for me to make head nor tail of it.

Some of you don't seem to realize that very specific statutes such as this were taken as general principles and expounded upon in the Mishneh. Here's one interpretation of the verse:
http://www.chabad.org/library/article_cd...er-One.htm
There is no difference whether she grabs "his private parts" or any other organ that imperils his life. Similarly, the rodef may be a man or a woman. The intent of the verse is that whenever a person intends to strike a colleague with a blow that could kill him, the pursued should be saved by "cutting off the hand" of the rodef. If this cannot be done, the victim should be saved by taking the rodef's life, as the verse continues: "you may not show pity."