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When did Christianity buy marriage?
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Serious question. Why do Christians think their religion and god have exclusive rights to marriage? Did they purchase it at some point and I'm just not aware? Do they know they can still hate gays even if they're married? I just don't understand. I need help wrapping my head around it.
Thanks 
God made it clear marriage was to be a sacrament after he revealed himself through his son, and it was to be a lifelong contract between one man and one woman.
If he has defined it as that, nobody has any right to change that definition. (June 28, 2015 at 7:54 pm)PiousPaladin Wrote: God made it clear marriage was to be a sacrament after he revealed himself through his son, and it was to be a lifelong contract between one man and one woman. So what you're saying is, god showed up and simply stole it? Kind of like the Spaniards when they landed in the Americas? God just pulled out his flag, staked his claim and it became his?
God had always intended it to be this way, it is identical to the model as demonstrated in Genesis between Adam and Eve. What we see in the OT relating to marriage was an indulgence for the time which has since ended.
(June 28, 2015 at 8:01 pm)PiousPaladin Wrote: God had always intended it to be this way, it is identical to the model as demonstrated in Genesis between Adam and Eve. What we see in the OT relating to marriage was an indulgence for the time which has since ended. Yes but, marriage is older than your god.
That is simply incorrect. Humans do not predate God.
Why isn't there any movement from the 'traditionalist' perspective to put reasonable limits on divorce, and to prohibit subsequent remarriage ??
The granting of a pardon is an imputation of guilt, and the acceptance a confession of it.
There is, we excommunicate anyone who obtains a civil divorce unlike the Novus Ordo Church.
We don't hate anyone. We hate their sins.
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