atheism and children

[Javaman]

I understand the dilemma there. I would equate it to the scandal of Enron in the 90s. Just because someone is a member of Enron does not mean they were complicit in the scandal at the top. Nor does it mean they held the same views as those at the top. This is the problem when we paint with broad brushes we lose the ability to discuss things at a personal or subjective level. We often identify ourselves or label as members of a larger group (republican, white, black, Jewish, homosexual, etc) and that creates the danger of guilt by association. We are all individuals who may share common ideas with multiple "groups" but we need to be careful when we make inclusive claims of belonging to a particular sect of whatever because we may be telling others we agree 100% with that groups stances and beliefs but in reality it's not true.

Yes, this. And it wasn't even everyone at the "top" who played a part in covering up, either. The actions of a few, should not represent the majority.

Oh, don't misunderstand me. I get all of that: frankly it's what I assumed from the outset. But that's why I was puzzled by your earlier response CL. To be more specific, when I used the phrase "Catholic Church" you seemed unclear whether I meant the "higher ups" or all Catholics in general; to me, it seemed obvious I meant those officials who can claim to act or speak on behalf of the institution itself.

I guess for me the next thing that needs clarification is who gets to decide when an official of the Catholic Church (priest, bishop, cardinal, pope, etc) is acting as an individual as opposed to representing the institution of the Church. For example, let's assume that a bishop speaks on behalf of all Catholics when he declares that IVF is an immoral act. Is he still speaking on behalf of all Catholics when he threatens excommunication to politicians who don't vote to make it illegal? Is he still speaking on behalf of all Catholics when he likens IVF to Nazi eugenics?

When Cardinal Ratzinger, before he became the pope, instructed bishops to first report to the Vatican (i.e. instead of the police) any allegations of child sexual abuse, was he acting as an individual? Or as a representative of the Church? And again, who gets to make those distinctions and how?