Hey Drich! 
Nice of you to drop by!
In the latin Vulgate, it's "non occides" (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se...on=VULGATE).
"occidere" is the indicative form of the verb and means:
http://www.latin-dictionary.net/search/latin/occide
Kill and murder are both acceptable... but this thing wasn't written in latin by god, right?
Let's look at the hebrew one (http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0220.htm):
יב לֹא תִרְצָח
I have no idea how to read that.... I know the יב is supposed to be the verse number, because it's bolded on the site where I got it from and this language goes from right to left.
Let's translate it!
http://www.morfix.co.il/%D7%99%D7%91%20%...6%B8%D7%97
That's no good... microsoft is biased!
Let's try to translate this one word at a time. It seems that site found the 12 easily enough, but missed the rest.
Removing the 12:
http://www.morfix.co.il/%D7%9C%D6%B9%D7%...6%B8%D7%97
Now he only got the "no" part.... let's remove that, too and see what we get.
תִרְצָח
http://www.morfix.co.il/%D7%AA%D6%B4%D7%...6%B8%D7%97
There we go.
There's a slight difference on the first symbol on the right, but I'll assume that's because of the coupling with the "no" particle.
Still, I think that the killing of all the firstborn of Egypt, regardless of which entity did it, can be regarded as murder.
There was no war, so no martial law was in place... there was no need to kill so many innocent civilian children.
There was just a necessity to convince one single person to release a few slaves - Just saying that it could have been handled with much less loss of human life - hence it was murder. Murder by the law giver.... but not the Egyptian law giver. So the law of Egypt would stand in Egypt... I'm sure they had some similar rule encoded.
Whatever happened to "Render unto Ceaser..."?
Nice of you to drop by!In the latin Vulgate, it's "non occides" (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se...on=VULGATE).
"occidere" is the indicative form of the verb and means:
http://www.latin-dictionary.net/search/latin/occide
Quote:1. cut/knock down
2. kill, murder, slaughter, slay
3. weary, be the death/ruin of
Kill and murder are both acceptable... but this thing wasn't written in latin by god, right?
Let's look at the hebrew one (http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0220.htm):
יב לֹא תִרְצָח
I have no idea how to read that.... I know the יב is supposed to be the verse number, because it's bolded on the site where I got it from and this language goes from right to left.
Let's translate it!
http://www.morfix.co.il/%D7%99%D7%91%20%...6%B8%D7%97
Quote:יב לֹא תִרְצָח
12 thou shalt not kill
תוצאה זו הופקה על-ידי תרגום מכונה
Powered by Microsoft® Translator
י"ב
twelve
That's no good... microsoft is biased!
Let's try to translate this one word at a time. It seems that site found the 12 easily enough, but missed the rest.
Removing the 12:
http://www.morfix.co.il/%D7%9C%D6%B9%D7%...6%B8%D7%97
Quote:לֹא תואר
no, not ; don't, isn't ; no matter ; לֹא
Now he only got the "no" part.... let's remove that, too and see what we get.
תִרְצָח
http://www.morfix.co.il/%D7%AA%D6%B4%D7%...6%B8%D7%97
Quote:נִרְצַח
to be murdered, to be assassinated
There we go.
There's a slight difference on the first symbol on the right, but I'll assume that's because of the coupling with the "no" particle.
Still, I think that the killing of all the firstborn of Egypt, regardless of which entity did it, can be regarded as murder.
There was no war, so no martial law was in place... there was no need to kill so many innocent civilian children.
There was just a necessity to convince one single person to release a few slaves - Just saying that it could have been handled with much less loss of human life - hence it was murder. Murder by the law giver.... but not the Egyptian law giver. So the law of Egypt would stand in Egypt... I'm sure they had some similar rule encoded.
Whatever happened to "Render unto Ceaser..."?
