(January 8, 2016 at 10:43 am)Rhythm Wrote: Look..both interpretations are the same scenario...it can't have been both a reason to object and a reason to overcome an objection. Nothing was changed, there was nothing to overcome..and nothing was overcome. What am I missing?
Ok. Suppose I claim I'm a Prophet. You ask me ok if you are a Prophet, and you claim ancient Prophets were sent with miracles. Then show me a miracle. I show you a miracle. You then say, well I don't know if it's magic or not, but I will come with my tribe and we will see if you do more miracles. The tribe says only do this and that, we will believe in you and if you don't do it, we won't beleive. Like make a tree walk and then split an half, and one part move towards that direction and another move towards the other direction, without you touching it, this tree, no one but you and us. And then the next day, they come up with more demands. They are meant. Etc, etc.
Then they start making more demands like they all should be given mansions of gold and be given supply of food from the heaven etc, and then I say, God would of even given to these demands were it not that you rejected the previous demands and miracles.
However I still show more miracles, but on God's terms.
Now take that and take the stance:
Suppose I claim I'm a Prophet. And then you say do a miracle. And I say, no. You say why not? I say because all ancient people rejected the miracles of the Prophets of the past so there is no sense in proving it to you. Does it make sense?
The latter seems like a stupid lame illogical excuse, and can even be proven as such because previous Prophets after previous Prophets it didn't prevent them.
I thought the latter was the only way to interpret the verse. The former seems logical. The latter seems illogical.