rewriting the bible part 2 - exodus

[dyresand]

There was no Jews in Egypt the Jews weren't Egyptian. Egyptians aren't  Jews. 
The Egyptians were polytheists not monotheists. That being said Jews are monotheist. 
Now we got that out of the way why would the  Jews wander so far out anyways. 
That would be the first lie in the OT.

If you move your family to russia and become citizens you become russian.

That is what happened here. Joseph durning the great famine in Genesis moved his family to egypt and became egyptians. They stayed but did not assimilate into the egyptian culture. That would be no different than a Syrian refugee moving to france and not becoming part of the culture. If that person become a citizen then he is considered to be a citizen of france even if he does not look like nor behave as other french people would.

The same thing happened here. The Jews/Joseph's family were nomadic semites. Meaning they did not have a country and they spoke the semetic language. Because of what Joseph did they were allowed to settle in the Goshen region of Egypt. (at the mouth of the nile delta) In genesis Everyone (including Joseph's Family) had to become property of the Pharaoh. Over a period of several hundred years the family of Joseph turned into a nation of people. Even in Egyptian records it mentions the fact that the 'desert dewellers' (Were not known as Jews yet) out numbered the native egyptians and this was cause for great concern. So the pharaoh turned them into slaves. This according to the Egyptian record.

Do you have any sort of proof outside of the bible that happened?