rewriting the bible part 2 - exodus

[Drich]

The Jew while in egypt were not known as Jews. Why? Because they were known as Egyptians...

Nope. They were known as the "sons of Israel", the "Israelites" or the "people of Israel", a clear ethnic distinction from the Egyptians, which the Bible states both explicitly and implicitly. See Exodus 1.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se...ersion=NLT

Exodus 1
1. These are the names of the sons of Israel (that is, Jacob) who moved to Egypt with their father,
... blah ... blah...
7 But their descendants, the Israelites, had many children and grandchildren. In fact, they multiplied so greatly that they became extremely powerful and filled the land.
8 Eventually, a new king came to power in Egypt who knew nothing about Joseph or what he had done.
9 He said to his people, “Look, the people of Israel now outnumber us and are stronger than we are.
...
11. So the Egyptians made the Israelites their slaves.

The Bible states in black and white that the Jews were in Egypt. Oh sorry, I've got that wrong - the People of Israel, the Sons of Israel, the Israelites. That means Jews, and you know it does.

Are you going to try to pretend that the Bible doesn't actually say this?

Whatever.

It doesn't really matter how hard you shout that black is white - it isn't.

This (your) whole mess/responce is one big Equivocation fallacy.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equivocation


Let's say your name Smith, and you and your family were the first colonists to settle Virgina or Arkansas. You were the first 'Smith' to settle the new world. Then let's say a few hundred years go by and your family has produced 1000's if not 100's of thousands of Smiths, and all of them decided to at one point up and leave to settle in one of the un named territories out west essentially creating your own city/state, and declared independence from the US government. Now while you all are living in your eastern homes/state, does the US government have an obligation to identify you as a sovern nation while living with in their boarders? Or is the government's responsibility in identifying you end with your last name?

The Jew's were not Jews till they received the law. They were not Israelites till they received their land. the suffix lite finds it's origin in the greek word lithos, in suffix form meaning of stone or of rock. In essence the "people of Stone or rocky land."
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=-lite

Before they were -lites/lithos they were simply sons if Israel/Jacob.

So then if they were nothing more than a wandering tribe with no land of their own when they came, and simply identified as 'Sons of Israel' as per exodus 1 (which you pointed out) Why then would the Nation of Egypt recognize them as a nation of people if infact they were living on sovereign Egyptian soil?

Just in case your ability to 'reason' has left you (because it is now March and no longer February) Egypt would not identify their home grown slaves as a nation of people. They would look at them with disdain and have racially specific names for them, which is reflected in their writings. They were not recognized till centuries later (well after they were a legit nation) by one of the Ramses boys.