My views on objective morality

[Neo-Scholastic]

The Euthypro Dilemma is what I've already been describing (though I didn't know it was called that until I looked it up)...

Many scholars believe that Plato’s Euthyphro is one of his first. Its early chronological position may explain why the Socratic dialog ends without resolution to the problem it raises, whether deeds are good because the gods approve or whether the gods approve of some deeds because they are good. This may also explain why so many atheists mistakenly believe the dilemma conclusively shows that divinity cannot be objectively grounded. What it really shows is that such atheists fail to consider the dilemma within the context of subsequent dialogs.

Plato presented the so-called Euthyphro dilemma in order to clear the way for his concept of The Good as the solution to the dilemma. The Good is a clearly monotheistic concept that was later developed and defined by pagan philosophers, like Plotinus, and Christian theologians like Augustine. The concept of The Good informs both the ontological proof of Anslem and Thomas of Aquinas’s Fourth Way. It also serves as the foundation for virtue ethics.

A cursory reading of a Wikipedia entry will give anyone the necessary history to understand the paradoxes’ place in moral theory. While it undermines simplistic notions of morality common in antiquity, it has no place in ethical theories since Plato. Only a very ill-informed atheist would rely on it to satisfy his immediate psychological need to reject in monotheistic moral claims.

So yeah, Mr. Redbeard, you did a fine job of rewriting the Wiki entry in your own words. To bad you lack the ability to understand why it's irrelevant and reveals your own ignorance.

The same goes for all of you that gave Kudos to his self-humiliation.